Bryan Caplan and I clearly have a disagreement about this question. I argue that anti-foreign bias, identified by Bryan in his book The Myth of the Rational Voter, ensures a significantly high enough dislike of immigrants that changes in our welfare programs don’t significantly influence public demand for stricter immigration policies. Bryan, in his latest post in the ongoing debate about liberaltarians and immigration, argues that this is not the case:
Anti-foreign bias is indeed strong and durable. But this hardly implies that it is invariant to circumstances. Immigration really was much more free before the welfare state arose. Welfare state abuse really is one of the most popular arguments against immigration. And there is good evidence that opposition to the welfare state heavily depends on the perception that out-groups disproportionately benefit from it. It’s no stretch to flip this evidence and say that support for the welfare state heavily depends on the perception that out-groups don’t benefit from it.
To his point about immigration being freer in the pre-welfare era, I would point out that this was true only for some people, some of the time. For instance there was the Chinese Exclusion Act in 1882 which severely limited Chinese immigration to this country until it was overturned in 1943. There was also the Immigration Act of 1917 and the National Origins Act of 1924, the latter of which completely banned immigration from any Asians. Notice these laws were passed prior to any kind of welfare program and removed the decade after this country’s first major welfare programs were past in the New Deal.
So while overall immigration may have been freer, there has been a lot of really ugly and, depending on who you are, more restrictive immigration laws that existed prior to any sort of welfare state in this country.
But as Karl has recently pointed out, Bryan is a betting man. So I’d like to propose an empirical test to this. If welfare can drive opinions on immigration, then the welfare reform passed in 1996 should have motivated a significant increase in tolerance for immigrants. The GSS asks whether respondents whether immigration should be increased or decreased, and I think it also has a “neither” option. I propose taking data for the full timeperiod of the GSS and we will not see a positive spike in 1996 or 1997 more than two standard deviations from the mean for those supporting more immigration, or a negative spike for the percent against more immigration. Thats four tests. I’ll call Bryan the winner if any of them are in his favor, and I’ll bet him $50. I promise I haven’t peeked at the data, in fact I wouldn’t know how since I’ve never worked with GSS data before. This is why I also want to request that, if he accepts the bet, Bryan crunch the numbers since I know he has used the data many times before.
UPDATE: Eli Dourado points out in the comments the series is too short to have a meaningful standard deviation, so let me alter the bet offer to this: support for immigration increases by less than 10% from 1995 to 1997.
UPDATE 2: To put my point above in perspective, think about what the percent of the world that lived in all of Asia from around 1880 to 1943 was. I won’t venture a guess at what that number is, but lets say a large percent. For this part of the world immigration was harder in a pre-welfare state period than it is today.

9 comments
Comments feed for this article
Friday ~ January 28th, 2011 at 9:17 pm
Eli
The variable that you’re referring to, “letin,” refers to a question that was only asked in 1994 and 2000. Since one of these years is before the reform and one is after, a comparison can be made, but since only one year is before the reform, the standard deviation is not defined. You’re going to have to respecify the bet.
Friday ~ January 28th, 2011 at 10:10 pm
Adam Ozimek
Darn, thanks Eli. Any variables in the GSS that would work as a good measure for what I’m looking for?
Friday ~ January 28th, 2011 at 11:00 pm
Eli
No, that’s the best variable, but I would just specify the bet in terms of some other magnitude of change between 1994 and 2000 *other* than standard deviation.
There is also “letin1″ which has more years, but the wording is slightly different and its first year is 1996. Even if you combine the two questions, it’s not really enough for a standard deviation benchmark.
“letin” has five categories: immigration should be “increased a lot”, “increased a little”, “same as now”, “decreased a little”, “decreased a lot”.
If you want, I can just give you the distribution of the 1994 data and you can bet Bryan on the 2000 data. For instance, if x percent wanted to decrease immigration in 1994, you would bet that at least x – y percent wanted to decrease it in 2000. I would give you x beforehand, you and Bryan can haggle over y.
Saturday ~ January 29th, 2011 at 1:24 am
Adam Ozimek
SInce it’s really about perceptions of welfare I’d expect the change in immigrant beliefs to be quick, and I think Bryan would agree. So I’d still want to focus on the changes in 1996 or 1997. Given I don’t know how much this series fluctuates over time, I suppose I’d be willing to wager that the measure of immigration support didn’t increase 10% or more from 1995 to 1997.
Friday ~ January 28th, 2011 at 11:26 pm
Lord
Why do we segregate ourselves in communities of similar wealth? Often the reason given is schools which being government provided may be considered welfare, but I really think it goes much deeper than that and is due to the networking effects it offers. Exclusivity is just another way of maximizing and restricting these benefits. Immigration is just an extension of this.
Friday ~ January 28th, 2011 at 11:34 pm
sardonic_sob
Um, I’m not an economist, but I would assume that the reason we segregate ourselves in communities of similar wealth is because people of similar wealth tend to buy/rent homes of, you know, similar price.
That nutty assumption aside, another possibility is that people of similar wealth often have similar ideas about what is and isn’t socially acceptable behavior and/or wish to live in the best neighborhood they can afford so that their wealth level doesn’t make them highly distinct from their neighbors.
Saturday ~ January 29th, 2011 at 10:45 am
Lord
Those homes are similar in price because that is just another way of enforcing exclusivity, and prices are highest in homogeneous communities because that is what people like. Other ways are plot sizes, building and planning codes, gates, associations and rules, fees, jurisdictional bounds. It may just be they they feel safer around people of their own wealth, fewer burglaries, robberies, and kidnappings to worry about.
Saturday ~ January 29th, 2011 at 11:01 am
Lord
Not all of this is economic though. It is also cultural, language, social, values, and status.
Saturday ~ January 29th, 2011 at 1:14 am
Jeff
This is a confusion about the direction of causality. The causal arrow runs from disliking immigrants (really just people who are different) to disliking welfare. Aside from the laws you mention, immigrants have been disliked throughout American history irrespective of the rise of the modern welfare state in the early twentieth century. Italian immigrants, Irish immigrants, German immigrants, etc. all experienced distrust and prejudice for their cultural otherness when they first began arriving en masse–despite being ‘white’.